Maseches Ketubot Daf 29
Nov. 2nd, 2022 10:24 amDaf 29
New Perek. This one is about the Torah laws of premarital sex.
A detour. Rabbi Steinsaltz interpolates the word rape a whole bunch here where the Talmud doesn't say it. He understands all of these laws not to be about premarital sex, but about nonconsensual premarital sex. I'm not entirely sure what his overall objective is in doing so, but clearly he's doing it to make an argument about how the law should be understand, sociologically. That said, I'm not sure how right it is, and I'm not sure how much it matters.
The basic idea is that the Torah says if an unmarried virgin woman has sex with a man, that in itself tentatively effectuates a marriage, without a ketubah. The Torah makes no distinction between the case of a nineteen year old girl voluntarily sleeping with her boyfriend or or the case of the serial rapist assaulting unmarried women on the street or the case of a thirty year old man sleeping with his fourteen year old maidservant. However, it does give the woman's father a veto over the marriage, which gives the parties some leeway to distinguish between a case when the marriage is desired but simply done out of turn, or the case when wrongdoing actually happened and the marriage should not go forward. In those cases, the man has to pay the father the difference between the marriage price of a virgin and the marriage price of a non-virgin, which in general in the Talmud has been 100 shekels.
I do want to say that you sort of understand why the Torah would arrange things in this way. Knowledge of a woman's virginity, and controlling sex to be either entirely within marriage, or immediately requiring marriage or compensation, is a strategy for ensuring that a)you know the paternity of a child and b)you ensure that the father is economically responsible for their child. So if sex occurs within a marriage, great, you know the father and you know they're responsible for the child. If sex occurs outside a marriage, you have two choices. Either you compel marriage and the father is responsible for the child, or you reject the compelled marriage and instead make the father provide money that serves as alimony and child support.
In modern American society, we have other tools that enable other strategies for achieving the same goals. We have effective paternity tests, safe abortion (in many places), no-fault adoption, a robust and interconnected court system to compel child support, and so on. So I do think it's important when reacting to one's immediate revulsion to the text to remember that those things didn't exist in Talmudic times.
So, with that background...
The first mishna of the perek is about cases where premarital sex happens but a marriage cannot happen because it is forbidden. If this happens, you in general default to the alternative, paying the father the difference in marriage price, which the Mishna calls a k'nos, a monetary fine. There are some exceptions.
There are different kinds of cases. I think it's useful at least in some limited ways to imagine them along a sort of continuum of Jewish womanhood, but I want to be clear that this is me doing theorizing and not halacha.
The first case the Mishna doesn't mention but I want to make it explicit because it illustrates the continuum I'm contemplating. If a man sleeps with a non-Jewish woman, it cannot effectuate marriage, but also it does not result in a fine because it would not be the Jewish authorities enforcing the penalty.
The second case, which is therefore the first case the Gemara mentions, is a woman who is living under Jewish law but is not considered fully Jewish for purposes of marriage- a woman of Gibeonite heritage or Samaritan heritage, or a woman who was the product of a forbidden Jewish relationship, a mamzeret. Because they're living under Jewish law, the beis din can enforce a fine, but it will not sanctify a marriage.
The third case is if the woman is not considered a virgin (even though she might actually be), such as if she was captive as discussed on a previous daf. In this case, you could enact the marriage, but if you chose not to enact the marriage there would be no k'nos because there's no change in status from virgin to non-virgin.
And the last case the Mishna discusses is if the relationship is a forbidden relationship, such as if a man sleeps with his relative. Obviously this can't lead to marriage, so it automatically results in k'nos. In this case, in addition to the k'nos, the man is chiyuv kares, which is like a death sentence but not. If there actually were a death sentence, there would be no k'nos.
The actual last case the Mishna doesn't mention yet, but which I want to lay out to establish the continuum, is the case of a virgin Israelite woman, which is the only case where there is the choice of marriage or k'nos. The continuum I'm talking about is a continuum of precarity in the Jewish community- how Jewish is the woman, how much of a potential wife is the woman, those are crappy questions but they're important in defining boundaries the Rabbis want to define.
New Perek. This one is about the Torah laws of premarital sex.
A detour. Rabbi Steinsaltz interpolates the word rape a whole bunch here where the Talmud doesn't say it. He understands all of these laws not to be about premarital sex, but about nonconsensual premarital sex. I'm not entirely sure what his overall objective is in doing so, but clearly he's doing it to make an argument about how the law should be understand, sociologically. That said, I'm not sure how right it is, and I'm not sure how much it matters.
The basic idea is that the Torah says if an unmarried virgin woman has sex with a man, that in itself tentatively effectuates a marriage, without a ketubah. The Torah makes no distinction between the case of a nineteen year old girl voluntarily sleeping with her boyfriend or or the case of the serial rapist assaulting unmarried women on the street or the case of a thirty year old man sleeping with his fourteen year old maidservant. However, it does give the woman's father a veto over the marriage, which gives the parties some leeway to distinguish between a case when the marriage is desired but simply done out of turn, or the case when wrongdoing actually happened and the marriage should not go forward. In those cases, the man has to pay the father the difference between the marriage price of a virgin and the marriage price of a non-virgin, which in general in the Talmud has been 100 shekels.
I do want to say that you sort of understand why the Torah would arrange things in this way. Knowledge of a woman's virginity, and controlling sex to be either entirely within marriage, or immediately requiring marriage or compensation, is a strategy for ensuring that a)you know the paternity of a child and b)you ensure that the father is economically responsible for their child. So if sex occurs within a marriage, great, you know the father and you know they're responsible for the child. If sex occurs outside a marriage, you have two choices. Either you compel marriage and the father is responsible for the child, or you reject the compelled marriage and instead make the father provide money that serves as alimony and child support.
In modern American society, we have other tools that enable other strategies for achieving the same goals. We have effective paternity tests, safe abortion (in many places), no-fault adoption, a robust and interconnected court system to compel child support, and so on. So I do think it's important when reacting to one's immediate revulsion to the text to remember that those things didn't exist in Talmudic times.
So, with that background...
The first mishna of the perek is about cases where premarital sex happens but a marriage cannot happen because it is forbidden. If this happens, you in general default to the alternative, paying the father the difference in marriage price, which the Mishna calls a k'nos, a monetary fine. There are some exceptions.
There are different kinds of cases. I think it's useful at least in some limited ways to imagine them along a sort of continuum of Jewish womanhood, but I want to be clear that this is me doing theorizing and not halacha.
The first case the Mishna doesn't mention but I want to make it explicit because it illustrates the continuum I'm contemplating. If a man sleeps with a non-Jewish woman, it cannot effectuate marriage, but also it does not result in a fine because it would not be the Jewish authorities enforcing the penalty.
The second case, which is therefore the first case the Gemara mentions, is a woman who is living under Jewish law but is not considered fully Jewish for purposes of marriage- a woman of Gibeonite heritage or Samaritan heritage, or a woman who was the product of a forbidden Jewish relationship, a mamzeret. Because they're living under Jewish law, the beis din can enforce a fine, but it will not sanctify a marriage.
The third case is if the woman is not considered a virgin (even though she might actually be), such as if she was captive as discussed on a previous daf. In this case, you could enact the marriage, but if you chose not to enact the marriage there would be no k'nos because there's no change in status from virgin to non-virgin.
And the last case the Mishna discusses is if the relationship is a forbidden relationship, such as if a man sleeps with his relative. Obviously this can't lead to marriage, so it automatically results in k'nos. In this case, in addition to the k'nos, the man is chiyuv kares, which is like a death sentence but not. If there actually were a death sentence, there would be no k'nos.
The actual last case the Mishna doesn't mention yet, but which I want to lay out to establish the continuum, is the case of a virgin Israelite woman, which is the only case where there is the choice of marriage or k'nos. The continuum I'm talking about is a continuum of precarity in the Jewish community- how Jewish is the woman, how much of a potential wife is the woman, those are crappy questions but they're important in defining boundaries the Rabbis want to define.