Masechet Chullin Daf 131
Apr. 7th, 2019 10:36 pmDaf 131
Is Mateh Levi one of the twelve tribes? Well, sort of. Anytime the Torah lists the tribes of Israel, it lists twelve tribes. Sometimes it includes Levi in the count, and leaves out one of the other tribes. Other times, it leaves Levi out of the count and adds back in that other tribe. Levi has a special status among the tribes because of its consecration to the Temple service. So when the Torah uses the term 'ha'am', does it include Levi?
Reply hazy. Try again.
Rav asks the question of whether Levites are obligated in the matanos. The matanos are special gifts to the kohanim, but they're chullin, not kodshin, that's the whole point of the first Mishnah. So you'd think sure, of course the Leviim have to give the matanos to kohanim, they're not kohanim. Obviously they have to give them.
The problem is that there's a lot of gifts that are owed to the kohanim, and less but still a few gifts that are owed to the Leviim, and they all have slightly different language in the psukim discussing them in the Torah, but the Mishnayos are trying to come up with somewhat more standardized rules for all these gifts. So Rav brings down a few different baraisos about the gifts that send mixed messages about what exactly the Leviim are chiyuv in as far as gifts to kohanim, and gifts to other Leviim.
In particular, in a baraisa about the matanos, it says "Kohanim do not give to Kohanim, and Leviim don't give to Leviim". Obviously, the latter part of the baraisa can't be about the matanos, because the Leviim are't owed the matanos, so the baraisa must be talking about some other thing that the Leviim are owed, probably the maaser rishon. But it's precisely this ambiguity that puzzles Rav. The language of "Kohanim don't give to Kohanim, and Leviim don't give to Leviim, suggests that there is some case where the Leviim do have to give to the Kohanim." Otherwise the baraisa could have said "Kohanim don't give to Kohanim, and Leviim don't give to Kohanim", and by kal vachomer we could have derived Leviim don't give to Leviim. Perhaps this is in reference to first shearings, which are also owed to Kohanim, but the most obvious implication is that it's about the matanos.
But the problem is that there is evidence both in the Torah literature and in the Mishnaic literature that uses 'ha'am' to include Leviim, and so Rav is uncertain about whether the Leviim should be considered part of the people for purposes of the matanos, because of the contradictory evidence.
Because of this safek, and because matanos is considered a monetary obligation rather than a matter of kedusha and mitzvah obligation (c.f. yesterday's thing about Rav Chisda's leniency, which seems to come from the same place), we are lenient and don't obligate the Leviim.
Is Mateh Levi one of the twelve tribes? Well, sort of. Anytime the Torah lists the tribes of Israel, it lists twelve tribes. Sometimes it includes Levi in the count, and leaves out one of the other tribes. Other times, it leaves Levi out of the count and adds back in that other tribe. Levi has a special status among the tribes because of its consecration to the Temple service. So when the Torah uses the term 'ha'am', does it include Levi?
Reply hazy. Try again.
Rav asks the question of whether Levites are obligated in the matanos. The matanos are special gifts to the kohanim, but they're chullin, not kodshin, that's the whole point of the first Mishnah. So you'd think sure, of course the Leviim have to give the matanos to kohanim, they're not kohanim. Obviously they have to give them.
The problem is that there's a lot of gifts that are owed to the kohanim, and less but still a few gifts that are owed to the Leviim, and they all have slightly different language in the psukim discussing them in the Torah, but the Mishnayos are trying to come up with somewhat more standardized rules for all these gifts. So Rav brings down a few different baraisos about the gifts that send mixed messages about what exactly the Leviim are chiyuv in as far as gifts to kohanim, and gifts to other Leviim.
In particular, in a baraisa about the matanos, it says "Kohanim do not give to Kohanim, and Leviim don't give to Leviim". Obviously, the latter part of the baraisa can't be about the matanos, because the Leviim are't owed the matanos, so the baraisa must be talking about some other thing that the Leviim are owed, probably the maaser rishon. But it's precisely this ambiguity that puzzles Rav. The language of "Kohanim don't give to Kohanim, and Leviim don't give to Leviim, suggests that there is some case where the Leviim do have to give to the Kohanim." Otherwise the baraisa could have said "Kohanim don't give to Kohanim, and Leviim don't give to Kohanim", and by kal vachomer we could have derived Leviim don't give to Leviim. Perhaps this is in reference to first shearings, which are also owed to Kohanim, but the most obvious implication is that it's about the matanos.
But the problem is that there is evidence both in the Torah literature and in the Mishnaic literature that uses 'ha'am' to include Leviim, and so Rav is uncertain about whether the Leviim should be considered part of the people for purposes of the matanos, because of the contradictory evidence.
Because of this safek, and because matanos is considered a monetary obligation rather than a matter of kedusha and mitzvah obligation (c.f. yesterday's thing about Rav Chisda's leniency, which seems to come from the same place), we are lenient and don't obligate the Leviim.